Our allotment is on council ground that was formally used as gardens for a children's home but has been allotments now for at least 30 years. some older residents in the village say it is even longer than that.
The council are dragging their feet about calling them statutory (and therefore protected to some degree from development) saying that there is no legal clause in any allotment law that says that once land has been continuously used as allotments for 25-30 years, that they become statutory.
their claim is that the land, though used as allotments for years, was never actually formally legally assigned as allotments (they still have it registered as play grounds and gardens) and therefore it is exempt from any law governing allotments. we are there by their kindness and grace.
can anyone advise on specific law (a link or reference would be great) that will clarify if:
a) allotments *do* become statutory after a certain period of continuous use.
b) is the council's claim that the land was never formally allocated as allotments a legal "get out" and we don't have a legal leg to stand on.
the land is a prime "brownfield" development site - the views are fantastic and it's in a "much sought after village" (as estate agents would say)
we don't want our hard work in clearing the jungle that was there before to all come to nothing....
can anyone help???
The council are dragging their feet about calling them statutory (and therefore protected to some degree from development) saying that there is no legal clause in any allotment law that says that once land has been continuously used as allotments for 25-30 years, that they become statutory.
their claim is that the land, though used as allotments for years, was never actually formally legally assigned as allotments (they still have it registered as play grounds and gardens) and therefore it is exempt from any law governing allotments. we are there by their kindness and grace.
can anyone advise on specific law (a link or reference would be great) that will clarify if:
a) allotments *do* become statutory after a certain period of continuous use.
b) is the council's claim that the land was never formally allocated as allotments a legal "get out" and we don't have a legal leg to stand on.
the land is a prime "brownfield" development site - the views are fantastic and it's in a "much sought after village" (as estate agents would say)
we don't want our hard work in clearing the jungle that was there before to all come to nothing....
can anyone help???
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